At what point is arranging becoming original music?
Posted: Thu Mar 05, 2009 5:48 pm
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Hello.
This had never become an issue because it never happened to me. But today, a fairly famous songwriter approached me with the following:
- She wants me to write and produce incidental music (background instrumental) for a soap opera based on some of her songs. This means she would give me a recording of some of her tunes, and I would have to "arrange" them in a way that I would adapt them to sound sad, like love, like action, like suspense, intrigue, etc.
The thing is that she insists that for this I would not get any authorship credits, and that she would be the sole owner of the copyright for these new pieces.
I've never done such a thing. I always write my own music, but now I'm not sure if she's right or she's wrong.
So far, my position is that in order to be able to write incidental music, I need to transform her melodies to achieve the desired emotions. Her tunes sound like boleros, but if I want to make them sound like action music, suspense, love, etc., I'd need to do extensive ORIGINAL writing (counterpoint, development, motif development, etc.). Not only the orchestration, but actually add from my creativity.
Is this considered "arranging", or original writing??
I really feel I should be entitled to share the copyright ownership for these new incidental themes... right? Something smells bad... unless I'm totally wrong, of course.
I know the law may be different in the USA, but I still would LOVE to know what your position is regarding this. IS there like a thin line that is blurred, or how would you deal with this?
Thank you so much for your input.
Hello.
This had never become an issue because it never happened to me. But today, a fairly famous songwriter approached me with the following:
- She wants me to write and produce incidental music (background instrumental) for a soap opera based on some of her songs. This means she would give me a recording of some of her tunes, and I would have to "arrange" them in a way that I would adapt them to sound sad, like love, like action, like suspense, intrigue, etc.
The thing is that she insists that for this I would not get any authorship credits, and that she would be the sole owner of the copyright for these new pieces.
I've never done such a thing. I always write my own music, but now I'm not sure if she's right or she's wrong.
So far, my position is that in order to be able to write incidental music, I need to transform her melodies to achieve the desired emotions. Her tunes sound like boleros, but if I want to make them sound like action music, suspense, love, etc., I'd need to do extensive ORIGINAL writing (counterpoint, development, motif development, etc.). Not only the orchestration, but actually add from my creativity.
Is this considered "arranging", or original writing??
I really feel I should be entitled to share the copyright ownership for these new incidental themes... right? Something smells bad... unless I'm totally wrong, of course.
I know the law may be different in the USA, but I still would LOVE to know what your position is regarding this. IS there like a thin line that is blurred, or how would you deal with this?
Thank you so much for your input.